It may be the above considerations for VAT and tax are simply not relevant because the client’s actions in relation to the overpayment are illegal in the first place. Have a look at the Theft Act 1968 definitions:
Basic definition of theft
- A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it; and “thief” and “steal” shall be construed accordingly.
- It is immaterial whether the appropriation is made with a view to gain, or is made for the thief’s own benefit.
‘Appropriates’ is basically defined as:
Any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner amounts to an appropriation, and this includes, where he has come by the property (innocently or not) without stealing it, any later assumption of a right to it by keeping or dealing with it as owner.
So could the fact that the client makes no attempt to repay the money and /or ignores it in communications with the customer mean that it is deemed to be theft?
Consideration should also be taken on the timing of any transfer. The Limitations Act 1980 would need to be considered as the relevant limitation periods for a claim in relation to debt arising under statute as set out in the Limitation Act 1980 is six years.